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Is this a myth re Windows disable after overclocking?



 
 
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  #1  
Old October 17th 08, 10:03 AM posted to alt.comp.hardware.overclocking
Beemer
external usenet poster
 
Posts: 173
Default Is this a myth re Windows disable after overclocking?

A friend has said that when installing XP prof and SP3 I should not have
activated Windows until after I had overclocked my Intel 8400. He claimed
that Microsoft would detect this (I assume during WGA and updates) and
disable Windows such that my computer will not boot.

Is this correct?

regards,

Beemer



  #2  
Old October 17th 08, 04:13 PM posted to alt.comp.hardware.overclocking
Phil Weldon[_2_]
external usenet poster
 
Posts: 131
Default Is this a myth re Windows disable after overclocking?

'Beemer' wrote:
A friend has said that when installing XP prof and SP3 I should not have
activated Windows until after I had overclocked my Intel 8400. He claimed
that Microsoft would detect this (I assume during WGA and updates) and
disable Windows such that my computer will not boot.


No. Your friend is not correct.

In addition, when you boot your computer, it starts up operating on
instructions in the BIOS chip, not the operating system. After tests and
start-up housekeeping under control of the BIOS, the operating system is
invoked and loaded from a drive or through a connection like an ethernet
card.

Phil Weldon

"Beemer" wrote in message
...
A friend has said that when installing XP prof and SP3 I should not have
activated Windows until after I had overclocked my Intel 8400. He claimed
that Microsoft would detect this (I assume during WGA and updates) and
disable Windows such that my computer will not boot.

Is this correct?

regards,

Beemer




  #3  
Old October 17th 08, 07:01 PM posted to alt.comp.hardware.overclocking
Beemer
external usenet poster
 
Posts: 173
Default Is this a myth re Windows disable after overclocking?


"Phil Weldon" wrote in message
m...
'Beemer' wrote:
A friend has said that when installing XP prof and SP3 I should not have
activated Windows until after I had overclocked my Intel 8400. He claimed
that Microsoft would detect this (I assume during WGA and updates) and
disable Windows such that my computer will not boot.


No. Your friend is not correct.

In addition, when you boot your computer, it starts up operating on
instructions in the BIOS chip, not the operating system. After tests and
start-up housekeeping under control of the BIOS, the operating system is
invoked and loaded from a drive or through a connection like an ethernet
card.

Phil Weldon

"Beemer" wrote in message
...
A friend has said that when installing XP prof and SP3 I should not have
activated Windows until after I had overclocked my Intel 8400. He claimed
that Microsoft would detect this (I assume during WGA and updates) and
disable Windows such that my computer will not boot.

Is this correct?

regards,

Beemer


Phil,

thanks for your reply. My friend, seemingly more computer savé than I,
had also said to me that changing from a single Intel processor to a dual
core would have the same effect.

To me his statement re overclocking and MS intervention did not make sense
but thisis the most appropriate group to get confirmation.

thanks,

Beemer


  #4  
Old October 17th 08, 07:49 PM posted to alt.comp.hardware.overclocking
RobV[_2_]
external usenet poster
 
Posts: 142
Default Is this a myth re Windows disable after overclocking?

Beemer wrote:
A friend has said that when installing XP prof and SP3 I should not
have activated Windows until after I had overclocked my Intel 8400.
He claimed that Microsoft would detect this (I assume during WGA and
updates) and disable Windows such that my computer will not boot.

Is this correct?

regards,

Beemer


Your "friend" doesn't know what s/he's talking about. The only time M$
has a problem with a system is if certain physical hardware has changed,
like a motherboard. Overclocking doesn't physically change any
hardware.


  #5  
Old October 17th 08, 07:56 PM posted to alt.comp.hardware.overclocking
Ed Medlin[_4_]
external usenet poster
 
Posts: 136
Default Is this a myth re Windows disable after overclocking?

Phil,

thanks for your reply. My friend, seemingly more computer savé than I,
had also said to me that changing from a single Intel processor to a dual
core would have the same effect.

To me his statement re overclocking and MS intervention did not make sense
but thisis the most appropriate group to get confirmation.

thanks,

Beemer


Even changing the processor may not trigger reactivation in and of itself.
If you changed the processor AND video card it most likely would. I am not
sure how they determine how many or which components trigger reactivation
but it usually takes two or more. The only single component I have seen that
almost always triggers reactivation is the MB, although I have changed a MB
out to one with the same chipset and it did not, even though it was a
completely different model.


Ed



  #6  
Old October 17th 08, 11:11 PM posted to alt.comp.hardware.overclocking
John Whitworth[_2_]
external usenet poster
 
Posts: 56
Default Is this a myth re Windows disable after overclocking?


"Beemer" wrote in message
...
A friend has said that when installing XP prof and SP3 I should not have
activated Windows until after I had overclocked my Intel 8400. He claimed
that Microsoft would detect this (I assume during WGA and updates) and
disable Windows such that my computer will not boot.

The OS *may* detect a swapped out processor (i.e. for a different model).
But not the same processor working at a different speed. Most overclockers
ramp their clock speed up and down more times than a tart's knickers. It
would be a well known phenomenon on this group if it were so!

I think it used to be the case that you could upgrade/change two or three
devices before activation would kick in. And after six months, your slate
was wiped clean anyway. Certainly, despite protestations from many people,
and legality preaching from others, it is even possible to reinstall OEM
copies of XP on completely different machines if you give it six months or
so between activations.

JW

  #7  
Old October 18th 08, 12:53 AM posted to alt.comp.hardware.overclocking
Phil Weldon[_2_]
external usenet poster
 
Posts: 131
Default Is this a myth re Windows disable after overclocking?

'Beemer' wrote, in part:
thanks for your reply. My friend, seemingly more computer savé than I,
had also said to me that changing from a single Intel processor to a dual
core would have the same effect.

_____

In addition to what others have posted, even if you change enough hardware
to trigger a request for reactivation, your system will still boot. Windows
will still work, just at a reduced level (how else would you know that
reactivation is required?) You can still use the system to reactivate
(otherwise there would be no way to reactivate.) The diagnostic approach
that reveals the truth of your friend's statements are the same as the
approach that reveals the source of a computer problem; logical analysis.

Phil Weldon

"Beemer" wrote in message
...

"Phil Weldon" wrote in message
m...
'Beemer' wrote:
A friend has said that when installing XP prof and SP3 I should not have
activated Windows until after I had overclocked my Intel 8400. He
claimed that Microsoft would detect this (I assume during WGA and
updates) and disable Windows such that my computer will not boot.


No. Your friend is not correct.

In addition, when you boot your computer, it starts up operating on
instructions in the BIOS chip, not the operating system. After tests and
start-up housekeeping under control of the BIOS, the operating system is
invoked and loaded from a drive or through a connection like an ethernet
card.

Phil Weldon

"Beemer" wrote in message
...
A friend has said that when installing XP prof and SP3 I should not have
activated Windows until after I had overclocked my Intel 8400. He claimed
that Microsoft would detect this (I assume during WGA and updates) and
disable Windows such that my computer will not boot.

Is this correct?

regards,

Beemer


Phil,

thanks for your reply. My friend, seemingly more computer savé than I,
had also said to me that changing from a single Intel processor to a dual
core would have the same effect.

To me his statement re overclocking and MS intervention did not make sense
but thisis the most appropriate group to get confirmation.

thanks,

Beemer


  #8  
Old October 18th 08, 10:17 PM posted to alt.comp.hardware.overclocking
Luvrsmel
external usenet poster
 
Posts: 2
Default Is this a myth re Windows disable after overclocking?

I've always discovered , while in my attempts to thwart additional
aggreements that windows recognizes the changes very early in the booting
process and displays a BSOD. Even Windows2000 will do this.
If one re-installs the OS with the setup disc in the optical drive, then the
chances of running XP with the new hardware is very good. Mind you, I've
only experienced these extreme circumstances when I've pulled a completely
working HD with XP installed and mounted the drive in a completely different
system...not just a few hardware changes as you can tell

"Phil Weldon" wrote in message
...
'Beemer' wrote, in part:
thanks for your reply. My friend, seemingly more computer savé than I,
had also said to me that changing from a single Intel processor to a dual
core would have the same effect.

_____

In addition to what others have posted, even if you change enough hardware
to trigger a request for reactivation, your system will still boot.
Windows will still work, just at a reduced level (how else would you know
that reactivation is required?) You can still use the system to
reactivate (otherwise there would be no way to reactivate.) The
diagnostic approach that reveals the truth of your friend's statements are
the same as the approach that reveals the source of a computer problem;
logical analysis.

Phil Weldon

"Beemer" wrote in message
...

"Phil Weldon" wrote in message
m...
'Beemer' wrote:
A friend has said that when installing XP prof and SP3 I should not
have activated Windows until after I had overclocked my Intel 8400. He
claimed that Microsoft would detect this (I assume during WGA and
updates) and disable Windows such that my computer will not boot.

No. Your friend is not correct.

In addition, when you boot your computer, it starts up operating on
instructions in the BIOS chip, not the operating system. After tests
and start-up housekeeping under control of the BIOS, the operating
system is invoked and loaded from a drive or through a connection like
an ethernet card.

Phil Weldon

"Beemer" wrote in message
...
A friend has said that when installing XP prof and SP3 I should not have
activated Windows until after I had overclocked my Intel 8400. He
claimed that Microsoft would detect this (I assume during WGA and
updates) and disable Windows such that my computer will not boot.

Is this correct?

regards,

Beemer


Phil,

thanks for your reply. My friend, seemingly more computer savé than I,
had also said to me that changing from a single Intel processor to a dual
core would have the same effect.

To me his statement re overclocking and MS intervention did not make
sense but thisis the most appropriate group to get confirmation.

thanks,

Beemer




  #9  
Old October 19th 08, 12:08 AM posted to alt.comp.hardware.overclocking
Jim[_29_]
external usenet poster
 
Posts: 1
Default Is this a myth re Windows disable after overclocking?

Beemer,

Here's some basic info on activation......

http://www.helpwithwindows.com/Windo...ctivation.html


--
Jim
Using Virtual-Access(OLR)
http://www.virtual-access.org
6.3 build 1 and Windows Vista Service Pack 1 build 6001

  #10  
Old October 19th 08, 05:35 AM posted to alt.comp.hardware.overclocking
Phil Weldon[_2_]
external usenet poster
 
Posts: 131
Default Is this a myth re Windows disable after overclocking?

I use 'boot' in its original computer sense.

Boot =

start the CPU with the program counter set to a location in the BIOS
ROM/EEROM

reset registers, flags, and RAM

run diagnostics on core system

enumerate hardware devices

use the Video BIOS to control video output

finish diagnostics

read specified device (for example, the boot record of the boot hard drive
or optical disk, or boot ROM on Ethernet card) and load into RAM

finish the boot process by turning program control to the instructions from
the boot record (setting the program counter to the RAM location that
corresponds to the boot image from the boot record.)

at this point machine control passes to the Operating system loader and the
Boot is finished. The metaphor is bootstrap. The system has pulled
itself up by its own bootstrap to the point where arbitrary programs can be
loaded and run.

The Windows Loader can run into trouble very early when loading the
Operating System if the hardware doesn't have hooks where expected,
different power schemes, different chipset, etc. This is not a Genuine
Windows thing, but rather the result of a map that doesn't fit the
territory.

Phil Weldon


"Luvrsmel" wrote in message
...
I've always discovered , while in my attempts to thwart additional
aggreements that windows recognizes the changes very early in the
booting process and displays a BSOD. Even Windows2000 will do this.
If one re-installs the OS with the setup disc in the optical drive, then
the chances of running XP with the new hardware is very good. Mind you,
I've only experienced these extreme circumstances when I've pulled a
completely working HD with XP installed and mounted the drive in a
completely different system...not just a few hardware changes as you can
tell

"Phil Weldon" wrote in message
...
'Beemer' wrote, in part:
thanks for your reply. My friend, seemingly more computer savé than I,
had also said to me that changing from a single Intel processor to a
dual core would have the same effect.

_____

In addition to what others have posted, even if you change enough
hardware to trigger a request for reactivation, your system will still
boot. Windows will still work, just at a reduced level (how else would
you know that reactivation is required?) You can still use the system to
reactivate (otherwise there would be no way to reactivate.) The
diagnostic approach that reveals the truth of your friend's statements
are the same as the approach that reveals the source of a computer
problem; logical analysis.

Phil Weldon

"Beemer" wrote in message
...

"Phil Weldon" wrote in message
m...
'Beemer' wrote:
A friend has said that when installing XP prof and SP3 I should not
have activated Windows until after I had overclocked my Intel 8400. He
claimed that Microsoft would detect this (I assume during WGA and
updates) and disable Windows such that my computer will not boot.

No. Your friend is not correct.

In addition, when you boot your computer, it starts up operating on
instructions in the BIOS chip, not the operating system. After tests
and start-up housekeeping under control of the BIOS, the operating
system is invoked and loaded from a drive or through a connection like
an ethernet card.

Phil Weldon

"Beemer" wrote in message
...
A friend has said that when installing XP prof and SP3 I should not
have activated Windows until after I had overclocked my Intel 8400. He
claimed that Microsoft would detect this (I assume during WGA and
updates) and disable Windows such that my computer will not boot.

Is this correct?

regards,

Beemer

Phil,

thanks for your reply. My friend, seemingly more computer savé than I,
had also said to me that changing from a single Intel processor to a
dual core would have the same effect.

To me his statement re overclocking and MS intervention did not make
sense but thisis the most appropriate group to get confirmation.

thanks,

Beemer





 




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